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Free ICO/FICO Past Papers MCQs

Past papers with full explanations for ICO Basic Sciences and Clinical/FICO exams.

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All 83 free ICO/FICO Past Papers MCQs, with answers and explanations

The quiz above serves a random 10 of these each time you retake it. Every question in the set is listed below — read the stem, commit to an option, then open the answer to check your reasoning against the explanation.

  1. 1

    Uveoscleral outflow accounts for what percentage of aqueous outflow?

    • A2%
    • B5%
    • C5–10%
    • D10–50%
    • E75–90%
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — 10–50%

    Uveoscleral outflow is pressure-independent. Normally contributes 10–50% of aqueous drainage.

  2. 2

    Mean normal outflow facility is:

    • A0.05 μL/min/mmHg
    • B0.15 μL/min/mmHg
    • C0.28 μL/min/mmHg
    • D0.48 μL/min/mmHg
    • E1.0 μL/min/mmHg
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — 0.28 μL/min/mmHg

    Normal range ≈ 0.22–0.28 μL/min/mmHg

  3. 3

    Main reflex tear secretor?

    • AGland of Wolfring
    • BGland of Krause
    • CLacrimal gland
    • DMeibomian gland
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Lacrimal gland

    Lacrimal gland → reflex tears; Krause + Wolfring → basal tears.

  4. 4

    Which association is FALSE?

    • AStromal wound healing → Type I collagen
    • BDescemet membrane → Type IV collagen
    • CVitreous → Type II collagen
    • DLens capsule → Type IV collagen
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Stromal wound healing → Type I collagen

    Stromal wound healing → Type III collagen; Corneal stroma → Type I collagen.

  5. 5

    Normal aqueous humor production?

    • A2 μL/min
    • B4 μL/min
    • C6 μL/min
    • D8 μL/min
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — 2 μL/min

    Produced by non-pigmented ciliary epithelium.

  6. 6

    Electrolytes present at half plasma concentration in aqueous humor?

    • ANa+, K+
    • BCa²⁺, PO₄²⁻
    • CCl⁻, HCO₃⁻
    • DCu²⁺, Zn²⁺
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Ca²⁺, PO₄²⁻

  7. 7

    Most common primary orbital malignancy of childhood arises from:

    • AMuscle
    • BHistiocytes
    • CMesenchyme
    • DCapillary endothelial cells
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Mesenchyme

    Rhabdomyosarcoma = most common primary orbital malignancy in children. Origin = undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.

  8. 8

    Which statement concerning cornea is FALSE?

    • AEpithelial oxygen comes from tears
    • BEndothelium pumps water into aqueous
    • CDescemet has fetal and adult layers
    • DBowman membrane is a true basement membrane
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Bowman membrane is a true basement membrane

    Bowman layer is not a true basement membrane; it is condensed anterior stromal collagen.

  9. 9

    Thickest layer of tear film?

    • AMarginal strip
    • BLipid layer
    • CAqueous layer
    • DGlycoprotein layer
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Aqueous layer

    Lipid ≈ 0.5 μm; Aqueous ≈ 7 μm; Mucin ≈ 0.1 μm.

  10. 10

    NOT a feature of basal cell carcinoma?

    • APearly elevated margins
    • BSpread to regional lymph nodes
    • CUlceration
    • DTelangiectasia
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Spread to regional lymph nodes

    BCC is the most common eyelid malignancy and rarely metastasizes.

  11. 11

    Features suggesting malignant eyelid lesion?

    • ATenderness, erythema, pigmentation
    • BRaised pearly margin, pruritus
    • CLash loss, central ulceration, rapid growth
    • DHyperkeratosis with dark pigmentation
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Lash loss, central ulceration, rapid growth

  12. 12

    Correct gland-secretory type match?

    • AMoll-apocrine, Lacrimal-eccrine, Meibomian-apocrine
    • BKrause-holocrine, Zeis-apocrine, Goblet-holocrine
    • CWolfring-eccrine, Moll-apocrine, Goblet-holocrine
    • DLacrimal-eccrine, Meibomian-holocrine, Zeis-apocrine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Wolfring-eccrine, Moll-apocrine, Goblet-holocrine

    High-Yield Table: | Gland | Secretion Type | | Lacrimal | Eccrine | | Krause | Eccrine | | Wolfring | Eccrine | | Meibomian | Holocrine | | Zeis | Holocrine | | Moll | Apocrine | | Goblet | Holocrine |

  13. 13

    Physiologic diplopia occurs:

    • AOn horopter
    • BWithin Panum area
    • CIn front of Panum area
    • DNone
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — In front of Panum area

    Occurs in front of and behind Panum's area.

  14. 14

    Rhabdomyosarcoma type with worst prognosis?

    • ABotryoid
    • BPleomorphic
    • CAlveolar
    • DEmbryonal
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Alveolar

    Worst → Alveolar; Most common → Embryonal.

  15. 15

    Protein accumulation causing brunescence cataract?

    • AHigh molecular weight crystallin
    • BAlpha crystallin
    • CGamma crystallin
    • DWater-insoluble protein
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Water-insoluble protein

  16. 16

    Largest crystallin in human lens?

    • Aβ-crystallin
    • Bα-crystallin
    • Cγ-crystallin
    • DTaxon-specific crystallin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — α-crystallin

  17. 17

    NOT protective against oxidation in lens?

    • AGlutathione peroxidase
    • BVitamin A
    • CSuperoxide dismutase
    • DCatalase
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Vitamin A

    Glutathione, Catalase, Superoxide dismutase, Vitamins C & E.

  18. 18

    Protective mechanism against lens oxidation?

    • AGlutathione
    • BVitamin A
    • CAldose reductase
    • DVitamin B12
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Glutathione

  19. 19

    Best stain for sebaceous gland carcinoma?

    • AGiemsa
    • BH&E
    • COil Red O
    • DMethenamine silver
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Oil Red O

    Oil Red O stains lipids.

  20. 20

    Pagetoid spread is most associated with:

    • AMelanoma
    • BSCC
    • CSebaceous gland carcinoma
    • DMerkel cell tumor
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Sebaceous gland carcinoma

  21. 21

    Melanoma with best prognosis?

    • AIris
    • BCiliary body
    • CAnterior choroid
    • DPosterior choroid
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Iris

    Iris melanoma is often diagnosed early and can be excised completely.

  22. 22

    Elderly woman with unilateral chronic blepharitis, thickened upper lid, lymphadenopathy?

    • ABCC
    • BKeratoacanthoma
    • CMolluscum contagiosum
    • DSebaceous gland carcinoma
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Sebaceous gland carcinoma

    "Chronic unilateral blepharitis in elderly = sebaceous gland carcinoma until proven otherwise."

  23. 23

    RPE characteristic NOT correct?

    • ABasal Na-K pump maintains ion gradient
    • BBlood-retinal barrier
    • CRetinal adhesion
    • DVitamin A isomerization
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Basal Na-K pump maintains ion gradient

    Na-K ATPase is located on the apical surface.

  24. 24

    RPE function NOT correct?

    • ARetinal adhesion
    • BVisual pigment regeneration
    • CNutrient transport
    • DPhagocytosis of photoreceptor inner segments
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Phagocytosis of photoreceptor inner segments

    RPE phagocytoses outer segment tips.

  25. 25

    Rods are how much more sensitive than cones?

    • AEqual
    • B10×
    • C1000×
    • D10,000×
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — 1000×

  26. 26

    Found in inner plexiform layer?

    • AAxons of ganglion cells
    • BAxons of amacrine cells
    • CSynapses of photoreceptors
    • DMüller cell footplates
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Axons of amacrine cells

    IPL Contains: Ganglion dendrites, Bipolar axons, Amacrine processes.

  27. 27

    Ocular gland statements true?

    • A1 and 2
    • B1 and 3
    • C2 and 4
    • D3 and 4
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — 1 and 3

    Accessory glands → basal tears; Main lacrimal gland → reflex tears; Meibomian glands are not associated with eyelashes.

  28. 28

    Keratoconjunctivitis sicca staining occurs where?

    • ASuperior third
    • BMiddle third (interpalpebral)
    • CInferior third
    • DDiffuse
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Middle third (interpalpebral)

  29. 29

    Corneal layer staining most with PAS?

    • AEndothelium
    • BBowman layer
    • CWing cells
    • DDescemet membrane
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Descemet membrane

    PAS highlights basement membranes.

  30. 30

    Tear layer containing IgA?

    • AMucin layer
    • BLipid layer
    • CAqueous layer
    • DGlycoprotein layer
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Aqueous layer

  31. 31

    Contributes to aqueous layer of tear film?

    • AWolfring glands
    • BZeis glands
    • CGoblet cells
    • DMeibomian glands
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Wolfring glands

  32. 32

    Correct corneal collagen association?

    • ACorneal wound healing → Type III collagen
    • BDescemet membrane → Type I collagen
    • CBowman layer → Type IV collagen
    • DStroma → Type II collagen
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Corneal wound healing → Type III collagen

  33. 33

    False statement about homocystinuria?

    • AOsteoporosis and renal dysfunction occur
    • BAbnormal from birth with seizures and mental retardation
    • CEctopia lentis occurs in >30%
    • DLow methionine, high cysteine diet beneficial
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Abnormal from birth with seizures and mental retardation

    Patients are usually normal at birth and develop symptoms later.

  34. 34

    NOT a true basement membrane?

    • ADescemet membrane
    • BBruch membrane
    • CLens capsule
    • DBowman membrane
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Bowman membrane

  35. 35

    False statement regarding lens structure?

    • AY suture represents lens fiber ends
    • BLens nuclei concentrated near equator
    • CLens fibers in nucleus continue to divide throughout life
    • DAnterior Y suture is upright
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Lens fibers in nucleus continue to divide throughout life

    Division occurs in equatorial lens epithelium. Central lens fibers do not divide.

  36. 36

    True statements concerning neonatal conjunctivitis include all EXCEPT:

    • ADefinitive diagnosis can be made by identifying intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on Giemsa stain
    • BHerpes simplex is not an important cause in infants under 4 weeks of age
    • CChlamydia is a common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum
    • DGonococcal infection can rapidly involve the cornea
    • ESystemic treatment is often required
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Herpes simplex is not an important cause in infants under 4 weeks of age

    HSV is an important cause of neonatal conjunctivitis. Chlamydia is the most common infectious cause.

  37. 37

    Cardinal signs of inflammation include all EXCEPT:

    • ARedness
    • BIrreversible architectural disruption
    • CPain
    • DLoss of function
    • EWarmth
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Irreversible architectural disruption

    Key Point — Five cardinal signs:; Rubor = Redness; Calor = Warmth; Dolor = Pain; Tumor = Swelling; Functio laesa = Loss of function

  38. 38

    Which statement about trachoma is FALSE?

    • ASerotypes A–C are responsible
    • BBlindness is due to hypersensitivity response to Chlamydia
    • CStages I & II have follicles without scarring
    • DWHO grading includes follicles, scarring, trichiasis, corneal opacity
    • EAntibiotic treatment must be prolonged because of resistance
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: E — Antibiotic treatment must be prolonged because of resistance

    Blindness results from cicatrization and scarring. Serotypes A, B, Ba, C cause trachoma.

  39. 39

    Which disease is NOT caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

    • ALigneous conjunctivitis
    • BAdult inclusion conjunctivitis
    • CLymphogranuloma venereum
    • DTrachoma
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Ligneous conjunctivitis

    Trachoma → Serotypes A–C; Adult inclusion conjunctivitis → D–K; LGV → L1–L3

  40. 40

    Association between microorganism and culture medium that is CORRECT?

    • AMoraxella — Blood agar in 5–10% CO₂
    • BFungi — Sabouraud agar with cycloheximide
    • CMycobacterium tuberculosis — Loeffler medium
    • DHaemophilus — Blood agar
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Moraxella — Blood agar in 5–10% CO₂

    M. tuberculosis → Lowenstein–Jensen medium; Haemophilus → Chocolate agar; Ocular fungi → Sabouraud agar WITHOUT cycloheximide

  41. 41

    Organism NOT usually a commensal of lids and lashes?

    • AMoraxella catarrhalis
    • BHaemophilus influenzae
    • CPropionibacterium acnes
    • DStaphylococcus epidermidis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Haemophilus influenzae

    Key Point — Normal lid flora:; Staphylococcus epidermidis; Corynebacterium; Moraxella catarrhalis; Streptococcus viridans

  42. 42

    Most effective preoperative regimen to reduce conjunctival bacterial counts?

    • ATopical antibiotic for 3 days
    • BPovidone-iodine for 3 days
    • CTopical antibiotic for 3 days + povidone-iodine at surgery
    • DPovidone-iodine at surgery only
    • EPovidone-iodine then saline flush
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Topical antibiotic for 3 days + povidone-iodine at surgery

    Antibiotic pretreatment + povidone iodine gives maximal reduction.

  43. 43

    Vaccination for varicella zoster virus — all true EXCEPT:

    • ASingle dose adequate in children 1–12 years
    • BTwo doses for patients >12 years
    • CReduces incidence of shingles in adults with prior childhood varicella
    • DContraindicated during pregnancy
    • EAvoid salicylates for 6 weeks after vaccination
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Reduces incidence of shingles in adults with prior childhood varicella

    Varivax prevents primary varicella. It is not intended to prevent shingles after prior infection.

  44. 44

    Most likely extraocular focus in endogenous bacterial endophthalmitis?

    • ALiver abscess
    • BEndocarditis
    • COrbital cellulitis
    • DMeningitis
    • ESeptic arthritis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Liver abscess

    Key Point — Most common sources:; Liver abscess; Endocarditis

  45. 45

    Species most frequently implicated in adult preseptal cellulitis?

    • AStaphylococcus species
    • BStreptococcus species
    • CHaemophilus species
    • DPseudomonas species
    • EBacillus species
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Staphylococcus species

    Staphylococcus aureus is most common; Streptococcus is second.

  46. 46

    Which hypersensitivity conjunctivitis takes the longest to develop?

    • AToxic follicular conjunctivitis
    • BToxic papillary conjunctivitis
    • CContact dermatitis with conjunctivitis
    • DAnaphylactoid reaction
    • ENo pattern exists
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Toxic follicular conjunctivitis

    May take weeks, months, or years.

  47. 47

    Classic clinical sign of staphylococcal blepharoconjunctivitis?

    • AInferior follicular conjunctivitis
    • BScurf
    • CLimbal papillae
    • DCollarettes
    • ESleeving of lashes
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Collarettes

    Collarettes → Staphylococcus; Scurf → Seborrhea; Sleeves → Demodex

  48. 48

    Most common cause of acute painful enlargement of lacrimal gland?

    • ASarcoidosis
    • BSjögren syndrome
    • CBacterial dacryoadenitis
    • DLeprosy
    • EHerpes zoster
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Bacterial dacryoadenitis

    Usually ascending staphylococcal infection. Viral dacryoadenitis is often painless.

  49. 49

    Chronic asymptomatic dacryocystitis is most commonly caused by?

    • AStaphylococcus aureus
    • BStreptococcus pneumoniae
    • CStaphylococcus epidermidis
    • DHaemophilus influenzae
    • EPseudomonas aeruginosa
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Streptococcus pneumoniae

    Silent dacryocystitis classically caused by pneumococcus.

  50. 50

    Which statement about postoperative endophthalmitis is TRUE?

    • A7–10 days postop, Streptococcus most common
    • B2–5 days postop, Streptococcus most common
    • C2–5 days postop, Staphylococcus most common
    • D7–10 days postop, Staphylococcus most common
    • EOrganisms originate from surgeon flora
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — 2–5 days postop, Staphylococcus most common

    Most common organism: Staphylococcus epidermidis. Usually from patient's lid flora.

  51. 51

    Features favoring herpes zoster ophthalmicus dendrites EXCEPT:

    • ALarge frequently branching dendrite
    • BPlaque of epithelial cells
    • CNo terminal bulb
    • DCoarse blunt-ended dendrites
    • EDull fluorescein staining
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Large frequently branching dendrite

    Key Point — HZO pseudodendrites:; Smaller; Less branching; No terminal bulbs; Blunt ends

  52. 52

    Class I MHC:

    • APresent on almost all nucleated cells
    • BHLA-DR, DP, DQ
    • CWorks with CD4 T cells
    • DProcesses endocytosed antigens
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Present on almost all nucleated cells

    Class I: HLA-A, B, C; CD8 T cells; present on almost all nucleated cells.; Class II: HLA-DR, DP, DQ; CD4 T cells.

  53. 53

    Most abundant antibody in tear film?

    • AIgE
    • BIgM
    • CIgA
    • DIgG
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — IgA

    Secretory IgA is the dominant immunoglobulin in tears.

  54. 54

    Immunoglobulin classes important in antigen reception on lymphocyte surfaces during primary immune responses?

    • A1,2,3
    • B1 and 3
    • C2 and 4
    • D4 only
    • E1,2,3,4
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — 1,2,3

    Key Point — Surface immunoglobulins: IgM, IgD, IgG function as antigen receptors on B lymphocytes.

  55. 55

    Which statement about prostaglandins is FALSE?

    • ACOX pathway produces prostaglandins, prostacyclin, and thromboxane
    • BIn general, prostaglandins cause mydriasis
    • CCorticosteroids inhibit both COX and LOX pathways
    • DLow-dose prostaglandins decrease IOP; high doses may increase IOP
    • EProstacyclin is a vasodilator; thromboxane is a vasoconstrictor
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — In general, prostaglandins cause mydriasis

    Topical PGE and PGF cause miosis, not mydriasis. Steroids inhibit phospholipase A2 → block both COX and LOX pathways.

  56. 56

    All methods increase ocular absorption of topical medications EXCEPT:

    • AAdding a second eye drop immediately after the first
    • BWaiting 5–10 min between medications
    • CNasolacrimal occlusion
    • DClosing eyes after administration
    • EPrior topical anesthetic
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Adding a second eye drop immediately after the first

    Second drop may wash out the first. One drop (~50 µL) exceeds conjunctival sac capacity (~10 µL).

  57. 57

    Factors increasing corneal penetration EXCEPT:

    • AHigher drug concentration
    • BHigher vehicle viscosity
    • CHigher pH of the drug
    • DHigher lipid solubility
    • EBenzalkonium chloride
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Higher pH of the drug

    Extreme pH causes reflex tearing and dilution. BAK disrupts corneal epithelium and increases penetration.

  58. 58

    NSAIDs block formation of all EXCEPT:

    • AThromboxane
    • BLeukotrienes
    • CProstaglandins
    • DProstacyclin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Leukotrienes

    NSAIDs block COX. Leukotrienes are produced through LOX pathway.

  59. 59

    Aminoglycoside most commonly causing topical hypersensitivity?

    • AGentamicin
    • BTobramycin
    • CKanamycin
    • DAmikacin
    • ENeomycin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: E — Neomycin

    Most frequent topical allergic reactions among aminoglycosides. Hypersensitivity occurs in ~6–8%.

  60. 60

    Which statement about vancomycin is FALSE?

    • AInhibits cell wall synthesis
    • BEmpiric use in neutropenia is recommended for prophylaxis
    • CDrug of choice in filtering bleb-related endophthalmitis
    • DUseful in pseudomembranous colitis
    • ENephrotoxicity increased with aminoglycosides
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Empiric use in neutropenia is recommended for prophylaxis

    CDC recommends avoiding routine empiric vancomycin due to resistance concerns.

  61. 61

    All statements are true of diclofenac-class drugs EXCEPT:

    • ACan cause corneal melt/perforation
    • BUsed for postoperative inflammation
    • CIncrease thromboxane production
    • DDecrease prostaglandin synthesis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Increase thromboxane production

    NSAIDs decrease prostaglandins, prostacyclin, and thromboxane.

  62. 62

    Ways to increase ocular absorption EXCEPT:

    • APrior topical anesthetic
    • BNasolacrimal occlusion
    • CEye closure after drop instillation
    • DIncreased hydrophilicity of the drug
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Increased hydrophilicity of the drug

    Increased lipid solubility improves corneal penetration.

  63. 63

    Higher uptake as ointment rather than drops EXCEPT:

    • ATetracycline
    • BChloramphenicol
    • CFluorometholone
    • DPenicillin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Penicillin

    Penicillin penetrates ocular tissues poorly.

  64. 64

    Mitomycin-C has been used in all EXCEPT:

    • AProliferative vitreoretinopathy after vitrectomy
    • BConjunctival fibrosis after trabeculectomy
    • CPterygium recurrence
    • DStromal haze after PRK
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Proliferative vitreoretinopathy after vitrectomy

    MMC is primarily used on external ocular surfaces.

  65. 65

    Natamycin may be effective against all EXCEPT:

    • AAspergillus
    • BCandida albicans
    • CFusarium
    • DMucor
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Mucor

    Mucor responds better to Amphotericin B.

  66. 66

    Amphotericin B alone may be effective against all EXCEPT:

    • AAspergillus
    • BCandida
    • CCryptococcus
    • DMucor
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Mucor

    Mucor generally requires Amphotericin B plus surgical debridement.

  67. 67

    Effective agents for Acanthamoeba EXCEPT:

    • ANeomycin
    • BPolyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)
    • CPropamidine
    • DTrifluridine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Trifluridine

    Trifluridine is antiviral. PHMB + diamidines are classic therapy.

  68. 68

    Side effects of systemic corticosteroids include all EXCEPT:

    • AAseptic necrosis of hip
    • BHypoglycemia
    • CHypertension
    • DGastric ulceration
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Hypoglycemia

    Steroids cause hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

  69. 69

    Side effects of prostaglandin analogues EXCEPT:

    • AConjunctival hyperemia
    • BCystoid macular edema
    • CDecrease in iris pigmentation
    • DHypertrichosis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Decrease in iris pigmentation

    Prostaglandin analogues increase iris pigmentation.

  70. 70

    Best topical beta-blocker for mild bronchoconstrictive disease?

    • ATimolol
    • BBetaxolol
    • CMetipranolol
    • DLevobunolol
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Betaxolol

    Betaxolol is β1-selective. Preferred in mild pulmonary disease.

  71. 71

    Least suitable IOP-lowering drug in mild bronchoconstrictive disease?

    • ATimolol
    • BBetaxolol
    • CLatanoprost
    • DBrimonidine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Timolol

    Non-selective β-blockers can cause bronchospasm.

  72. 72

    Which statement about carbonic anhydrase inhibitors is FALSE?

    • A>90% inhibition required before significant reduction in aqueous production
    • BReduced urinary citrate/magnesium predisposes to kidney stones
    • CCan cause acute transient myopia
    • DMetabolic acidosis is greater with oral than IV acetazolamide
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Metabolic acidosis is greater with oral than IV acetazolamide

    Metabolic acidosis is greater with IV acetazolamide.

  73. 73

    Dipivefrin is converted to epinephrine in:

    • ATears
    • BConjunctiva
    • CCornea
    • DAqueous humor
    • EIris stroma
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Cornea

    Corneal esterases cleave dipivefrin to epinephrine.

  74. 74

    Best single medication for POAG in an aphakic patient with chronic bronchitis, labile hypertension and depression on MAO inhibitors?

    • AEpinephrine
    • BDipivefrin
    • CPilocarpine
    • DTimolol
    • EAcetazolamide
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Pilocarpine

    Epinephrine/dipivefrin: risk of CME in aphakia.; Timolol: bronchospasm.; Acetazolamide: caution in depression.; Pilocarpine becomes safest option.

  75. 75

    Embryonic Fissure Closure?

    • ADay 17
    • BDay 23
    • CDay 27
    • DDay 33
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Day 33

    Embryonic (optic) fissure closure occurs around day 33 of gestation. Failure → coloboma.

  76. 76

    Bony Boundaries of Nasolacrimal Sac?

    • ALacrimal, ethmoid
    • BMaxillary, ethmoid
    • CNasal, lacrimal
    • DLacrimal, maxillary
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D — Lacrimal, maxillary

    The nasolacrimal sac sits in the lacrimal fossa, formed by the lacrimal bone and the maxillary bone (frontal process of maxilla).

  77. 77

    Epithelium of Nasolacrimal Duct System?

    • AStratified squamous epithelium
    • BPseudostratified columnar epithelium
    • CCuboidal epithelium
    • DStratified columnar epithelium with goblet cell overlay
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

    Nasolacrimal drainage system is lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium (respiratory-type).

  78. 78

    Nasolacrimal Duct Opening?

    • AAbove the inferior turbinate
    • BThrough the valve of Rosenmüller
    • CThrough an ostium partially covered by a mucosal fold (Valve of Hasner)
    • DInto the superior meatus
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Through an ostium partially covered by a mucosal fold (Valve of Hasner)

    NLD opens into the inferior meatus under the inferior turbinate, partially covered by the valve of Hasner. Valve of Rosenmüller is at the common canaliculus–sac junction.

  79. 79

    Bones Forming the Orbital Floor?

    • AMaxillary
    • BLacrimal
    • CZygomatic
    • DPalatine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Lacrimal

    Orbital floor = maxilla (orbital plate), zygomatic bone, palatine bone. Lacrimal bone forms part of the medial orbital wall.

  80. 80

    Muscle Originating Above the Annulus of Zinn?

    • ASuperior oblique
    • BSuperior rectus
    • CLateral rectus
    • DInferior oblique
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A — Superior oblique

    Superior oblique originates from the sphenoid bone superomedial to the optic canal, above the annulus of Zinn. All other EOMs arise from the annulus except inferior oblique (orbital floor).

  81. 81

    Myelinated Nerve Fibers?

    • AMyelination begins at the lateral geniculate body and progresses anteriorly.
    • BMyelination begins at the lamina cribrosa and extends posteriorly.
    • CAbnormal myelination is due to a defect in the lamina cribrosa.
    • DMyelination is completed after birth.
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B — Myelination begins at the lamina cribrosa and extends posteriorly.

    Normal optic nerve myelination proceeds from the lateral geniculate body anteriorly toward the globe and stops at the lamina cribrosa. In myelinated nerve fibers, myelination extends past the lamina cribrosa through a defect/sieve in the lamina cribrosa.

  82. 82

    Ankyloblepharon?

    • ASixth week
    • BThird month
    • CFifth month
    • DEighth month
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C — Fifth month

    Eyelids form and fuse by the 8th–9th week and reopen around the 5th–6th month. Ankyloblepharon (failure of complete separation of eyelid margins) is a fifth-month anomaly.

  83. 83

    Lateral Orbital Tubercle of Whitnall?

    • ACheck ligament of the lateral rectus
    • BSuspensory ligament of the eyeball (Lockwood's ligament)
    • CLateral canthal tendon
    • DAponeurosis of the levator muscle
    • EWhitnall's ligament
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: E — Whitnall's ligament

    Whitnall's (superior transverse) ligament is a fascial condensation of the levator aponeurosis; it does not insert into the lateral orbital tubercle. The tubercle gives attachment to the lateral check ligament, Lockwood's ligament laterally, lateral canthal tendon, and levator aponeurosis.

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